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I apologize upfront for the length of the post. But I want to make sure that all the facts are known.
We engage in indirect lending with several local car dealerships. The dealer will pull credit at their shop and then put the application into a system in which several lenders can look at the application to see if they would like the loan. At this point, credit is run again (this time by the lender)and there are essentially two different credit reports. I’ve been told that the dealership is providing a Risk Based Pricing Notice for their credit pull.
When I was reviewing indirect loan files, I noticed that the risk based pricing notice provided by the dealer did not match the information from our “the lenders” credit report. Differences included credit score, score range, percentile ranking, etc.
If the lender approves the loan, the dealer is free to write the loan according to our conditions (i.e. term, rate, etc). Assuming that the loan is accepted and closed, the dealer is responsible for all the paperwork, but the note is automatically transferred at closing. This means that the borrower knows that their loan payments will be made at the Bank and not the dealership.
I know that Regulation V states that a Bank that subsequently purchases an indirect loan is not responsible for the notice. However, in this case I believe that the Bank is generally controlling the underwriting.
I also think there is an issue that if the dealer is providing the risk based pricing notice and it really doesn’t reflect how we underwrote the loan (i.e. the dealer’s credit report has a credit score of 720 while the credit report we use had a credit score of 695). I believe an examiner could easily raise UDAAP issues.
So I guess here are my questions:
1. Who is responsible for sending the risk based pricing notice under this practice?
2. Do we have an UDAAP concern if the disclosure provided does not truly reflect what the Bank used to price the loan?Your help is greatly appreciated.
Topic: TRID-LE expiration & ITP
IF the bank provides an LE, the LE has been received by the customer in the mail, the LE expires, and no intent to proceed has been received, would it be correct to say that any fee then at that point could be increased because there would be no tolerance set point/no fees to adhere to at that point? In other words, we could then provide a revised/2nd LE with potentially all new fees because the first one expired?
If yes, then is there a requirement or expectation for the lenders to educate the consumer on the expiration of the LE?
Is there an issue if ITPs are frequently given late in the process? Is there a requirement or expectation of TRID/UDAAP that the ITPs should be obtained closer to the receipt of the LE?
We have had an issue with a lender not getting ITPs very timely, and in some cases this has benefitted the bank because the LE expired. What risk do we have here?
Topic: Fair Lending
If an applicant notes that they do not have any related living costs (doesn’t pay rent, lives with parents, etc), can a bank arbitrarily (but uniformly when applicable) assess a certain dollar amount related to housing expenses to determine a borrower’s ability to repay a loan? For instance, a borrower comes into apply for a small car loan. The borrower is currently living with their parents and does not have any housing expenses. And let’s say that the borrower has no other credit obligations. Can the bank (as policy) add a determined housing expense when calculating ability to repay even though that expense is not an actual expense?
Even if the bank applies this policy consistently, it does not seem like a good practice to add an expense to the borrower when the expense is not an actual expense. Additionally, I could see potential UDAAP concerns with the policy.
Any help would be appreciated.
Here are the facts:
John Doe has a first mortgage with ABC Bank on his principle dwelling. John comes into the Bank to refinance his loan to get a lower rate. Loan officer and borrower decide that the Secondary Market option is the best way to refinance the debt. The Secondary Market lender is responsible for approving/denying the loan application. Once the loan is approved, the loan will close in ABC’s name (table funded) and then subsequently sold to the Secondary Market lender (within a few days…the loan is sold individually and not as part of a group of loans). No new money is being advanced.
Is the refinancing subject to rescission?
If the loan is not subject to rescission but rescission documents were provided to the borrower at closing and the rescission was not honored (i.e. funds were disbursed prior to the rescission period ending), is this an issue (potentially UDAAP and or TILA)?
Your help is greatly appreciated!!
We use a third party to monitor fraudulent debit card transactions. If fraud is flagged, they will then contact our customer to confirm. Only transactions that were flagged are reviewed with the customer. Once the customer confirms fraud, they turn off the card, & ask the customer to contact the bank to file a dispute. The third party will also email the bank if fraud is confirmed. The customer doesn’t always call the bank to file a dispute & the bank has to reach out. Our question is, does the date of investigation begin the date that the customer confirms fraud with our third party provier or when the customer contacts the bank to file the dispute or when the bank contacts the customer? Also, we are concerned from a UDAAP perspective that the customer may be unclear they aren’t speaking to the bank when talking with our third party provider & may assume they are doing their part of the process. Is this a valid concern from a UDAAP perspective since it may be unclear to the customer?