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We are having trouble interpreting 1026.17(c)(10) and have been going back and forth with our vendor when trying to verify TIP calculations.
For ARM loans with an introductory rate that is not based on the index and margin that future adjustments are based on and for which there is an adjustment cap – if the first adjustment does not bring us to the fully indexed rate plus margin at time of consummation, do we continue to adjust until that rate is reached or do we only adjust once for the calculation?Consider the following scenario:
3/1 ARM
Intro rate of 1% (not based on the index)
After 3 years, rate is Prime + 4%
Currently, Prime is 3.25%
Adjustment cap is 2%Amort schedule and TIP calc show 1% for first three years, and at the beginning of year 4 it adjusts to 3% due to 2% adjustment cap. However, fully indexed rate plus margin at time of consummation is 7.25%. Do we show a second adjustment at the beginning of year 5 to 5%, a third at the beginning of year 6 to 7%, and then a fourth and final at the beginning of year 7 to max out at 7.25% for the remainder of the loan term? Or would we not adjust again and keep the rate at 3% for the remainder of the loan term?
Again, our basic question is are we required to adjust more than once for the calculation?
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